NEET Topic-wise & A
Topic 1: COMMON INFECTIOUS DISEASES IN MAN
NEET: Previous Years Questions
01. Match List I with List II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (NEET 2024)
✅ (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
02. Match List I with List II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (NEET 2024)
✅ (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
03. Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (NEET 2023)
✅ (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
04. Match List - I with List -II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (NEET 2021)
✅ (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
05. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enter the human body is
(1) Female gametocytes
(2) Male gametocytes
(3) Trophozoites
(4) Sporozoites (NEET 2020)
✅ (4) Sporozoites
06. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (NEET 2020)
✅ (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
07. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.
(1) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
(3) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test
(4) Salmonella typhi/Widal test (NEET 2019)
✅ (4) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
08. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and pollutants, many people in urban areas are suffering from respiratory disorder causing wheezing due to:
(1) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal cavity.
(2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(3) proliferation of fibrous tissues and damage of the alveolar walls.
(4) reduction in the secretion of surfactants by pneumocytes (NEET 2019)
✅ (2) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
09. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworm
(4) Amoebiasis (NEET 2018)
✅ (1) Elephantiasis
10. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria? (NEET-II 2016)
(1) Cholera and tetanus
(2) Typhoid and smallpox
(3) Tetanus and mumps
(4) Herpes and influenza
✅ (1) Cholera and tetanus
Model Questions
11. Discovery of blood circulation by William Harvey disproved
(1) Good Humor hypothesis
(2) Germ theory of disease
(3) Ayurveda system
(4) None of these
✅ (1) Good Humor hypothesis
12. Select the false statement.
(1) Widal test is used for confirmation of typhoid.
(2) Malaria is transmitted through Culex mosquito.
(3) Mary Mallon (Typhoid Mary) was a typhoid carrier who spread typhoid for several years.
(4) Plasmodium releases haemozoin.
✅ (2) Malaria is transmitted through Culex mosquito.
13. Odd man out.
(1) Typhoid
(2) Tetany
(3) Tetanus
(4) Cold
✅ (2) Tetany
14. Of the following statements, related to Pneumonia, pick out the wrong statement.
(1) In this, the lung alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration
(2) In severe cases, the lips and finger nails may turn grey to bluish in colour
(3) It is caused by 2 protozoans, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
(4) It is transmitted by inhaling droplets from an infected person or sharing utensils with an infected person
✅ (3) It is caused by 2 protozoans, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
15. Analyze the statements concerned with common cold.
a. A group of Rhino viruses cause common cold
b. They infect the nose, respiratory passage and lungs.
c. It is characterized by nasal congestion & discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness, etc.
d. Droplets from an infected person are inhaled directly or transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, doorknobs, computer keyboard, mouse etc.
Of these statements,
(1) b & d are wrong
(2) Only b is wrong
(3) a & d are wrong
(4) Only d is wrong
✅ (2) Only b is wrong
16. Most serious malaria (malignant malaria) is caused by
(1) Plasmodium ovale
(2) Plasmodium malaria
(3) Plasmodium vivax
(4) Plasmodium falciparum
✅ (4) Plasmodium falciparum
17. Life cycle of Plasmodium is
(1) Monogenetic
(2) Digenetic
(3) Trigenetic
(4) Polygenetic
✅ (2) Digenetic
18. Lifecycle of Plasmodium in human is in the sequence of
(1) Gametocytes → blood → asexual reproduction in liver cells → sexual reproduction in RBCs → release of hemozoin → sporozoites in RBCs
(2) Gametocytes → blood → sexual reproduction in liver cells → asexual reproduction in RBCs → release of hemozoin → sporozoites in RBCs
(3) Sporozoites → blood → asexual reproduction in liver cells → asexual reproduction in RBCs → release of hemozoin → gametocytes in RBCs
(4) Sporozoites → blood → sexual reproduction in liver cells → asexual reproduction in liver cells → release of hemozoin → gametocytes in RBCs
✅ (3) Sporozoites → blood → asexual reproduction in liver cells → asexual reproduction in RBCs → release of hemozoin → gametocytes in RBCs
19. Stool with excess mucus & blood clots is the symptom of
(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Filariasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Taeniasis
✅ (1) Amoebiasis
20. Which is not desirable method of mosquito control?
(1) Avoid stagnation of water
(2) Use of mosquito nets
(3) Use of mosquito coil
(4) Introduce larvivorous fishes
✅ (3) Use of mosquito coil
21. Which of the following set of diseases can avoid through mosquito control?
(1) Malaria, Ascariasis, Tetanus and Dengue
(2) Chikun gunya, Dengue, Ringworm and Rabies
(3) Malaria, Dengue, Chikun gunya and Filariasis
(4) Filariasis, Diphtheria, Malaria and Dengue
✅ (3) Malaria, Dengue, Chikun gunya and Filariasis
22. Which of the following is transmitted through the serum?
(1) Hepatitis A
(2) Hepatitis B
(3) Venereal diseases
(4) Cirrhosis
✅ (2) Hepatitis B
Topic 2: IMMUNE SYSTEM
NEET: Previous Years Questions
23. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
Statement II: Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T lymphocytes.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (NEET 2024)
✅ (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
24. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby.
Reason R: Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct (NEET 2024)
✅ (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
25. Which of the following are Autoimmune disorders?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gout
D. Muscular dystrophy
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B & D only
(2) A, B & E only
(3) B, C & E only
(4) C, D & E only (NEET 2024)
✅ (2) A, B & E only
26. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
(1) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(2) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
(3) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called Active Immunity.
(4) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called passive immunity (NEET 2020)
✅ (1) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
27. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(1) Auto- immune response
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Inflammatory immune response
(4) Cell-mediated immune response (NEET 2019)
✅ (4) Cell-mediated immune response
28. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains
(1) Natural killer cells
(2) Monocytes
(3) Macrophages
(4) Immunoglobulin A (NEET 2019)
✅ (4) Immunoglobulin A
29. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
(1) Psoriasis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Alzheimer’s disease
(4) Vitiligo (NEET 2018)
✅ (3) Alzheimer’s disease
30. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune response is responsible for such rejections?
(1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response (NEET 2017)
✅ (1) Cell-mediated immune response
31. MALT constitutes about percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
(1) 20%
(2) 70%
(3) 10%
(4) 50% (NEET 2017)
✅ (4) 50%
32. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain
(1) gamma globulin
(2) attenuated pathogens
(3) activated pathogens
(4) harvested antibodies (NEET-I 2016)
✅ (2) attenuated pathogens
33. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
(1) autoimmune disease
(2) active immunity
(3) allergic response
(4) graft rejection (NEET-I 2016)
✅ (1) autoimmune disease
Model Questions
34. Primary lymphoid organs are
(1) Bone marrow & thyroid
(2) Thymus & spleen
(3) Thymus & bone marrow
(4) Tonsils & thymus
✅ (3) Thymus & bone marrow
35. Odd man out.
(1) Tonsils
(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) MALT
✅ (2) Thymus
36. Which of the following is not physiological barrier?
(1) HCl
(2) Lysozyme
(3) Saliva
(4) Mucus coating
✅ (4) Mucus coating
37. Perspiration contains an enzyme that kills bacteria. The enzyme is
(1) Protease
(2) Lipase
(3) Co-enzyme
(4) Lysozyme
✅ (4) Lysozyme
38. What is true about Interferons?
(1) They are released by cells against viruses
(2) They are a group of hormone substances
(3) They are antibodies
(4) They are Viral proteins
✅ (1) They are released by cells against viruses
39. Acquired immunity is
(1) Non- specific to pathogen and based on memory
(2) Pathogen specific but not based on memory
(3) Pathogen specific and based on memory
(4) Non-specific to pathogen and not based on memory
✅ (3) Pathogen specific and based on memory
40. The rejection of organ transplanting in humans is prevented by using
(1) Aspirin
(2) Cyclosporine
(3) Calcitonin
(4) Thrombin
✅ (2) Cyclosporine
41. Treatment of snake-bite by antivenin is an example of
(1) Artificially acquired active immunity
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(4) Specific natural immunity
✅ (2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
42. Which is concerned with humoral immunity?
(1) Antibody
(2) T-cells
(3) B-cells
(4) Both (1) & (3)
✅ (4) Both (1) & (3)
43. The antibody present in colostrum is
(1) IgA
(2) IgD
(3) IgE
(4) IgG
✅ (1) IgA
44. Which is not true about CMI?
(1) It is mediated by B-lymphocytes
(2) It causes graft rejection
(3) It is a type of acquired immune response
(4) Helps to differentiate ‘self’ and ‘non-self’
✅ (1) It is mediated by B-lymphocytes
45. Vaccine is
(1) Collection of antibiotics
(2) Lifesaving drugs
(3) Killed bacteria & viruses
(4) Collection of lysins
✅ (3) Killed bacteria & viruses
46. The best HLA (Human Leukocyte antigen) match for transplants in order of preference is
(1) Parent > sibling > twin > unrelated donor
(2) Sibling > twin > parent > unrelated donor
(3) Twin > sibling > parent > unrelated donor
(4) Sibling > parent > twin > unrelated donor
✅ (3) Twin > sibling > parent > unrelated donor
47. Drugs against allergy include
(1) Anti-histamine
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Steroids
(4) All the above
✅ (4) All the above
48. “The soldiers of a country kill their own king”. This statement can be related to
(1) AIDS
(2) Autoimmunity
(3) Graft rejection
(4) Allergy
✅ (2) Autoimmunity
49. Example for autoimmune disorders is
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) AIDS
(4) Both (1) & (2)
✅ (4) Both (1) & (2)
Topic 3: AIDS
NEET: Previous Years Questions
50. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny viruses?
(1) B-lymphocytes
(2) Basophils
(3) Eosinophils
(4) TH cells (NEET 2023)
✅ (4) TH cells
51. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
(2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
(3) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
(4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response. (NEET-II 2016)
✅ (2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
NEET: Previous Years Questions
52. Select the mismatching one.
(1) AIDS- Widal test
(2) Asthma- Allergy
(3) Mast cells- IgE
(4) HIV- Body fluids
✅ (1) AIDS- Widal test
53. The dreadful RNA virus, HIV attacks mainly
(1) Hepatocytes
(2) Helper T cells
(3) Neutrophils
(4) Neurons
✅ (2) Helper T cells
54. The correct sequence of life cycle of HIV is
(1) HIV → To TH cells → RNA to DNA → viral DNA into host DNA→ production of virus particles → progeny viruses → to macrophages → T-cells decrease
(2) HIV → To macrophages → DNA to RNA → viral RNA into host DNA→ production of virus particles → TH cells → progeny viruses → T-cells decrease
(3) HIV → To macrophages → RNA to DNA → viral DNA into host DNA→ production of virus particles → TH cells → progeny viruses → T-cells decrease
(4) HIV → To macrophages → progeny viruses → RNA to DNA → viral DNA into host DNA→ TH cells → production of virus particles → T-cells decrease
✅ (1) HIV → To TH cells → RNA to DNA → viral DNA into host DNA→ production of virus particles → progeny viruses → to macrophages → T-cells decrease
55. Which of the following is not true about HIV?
(1) It is a retrovirus having RNA genome
(2) It mainly spreads through unprotected sexual contact
(3) It can change its genome to DNA in presence of DNA polymerase
(4) It uses macrophages as HIV factory
✅ (3) It can change its genome to DNA in presence of DNA polymerase
Topic 4: CANCER
NEET: Previous Years Questions
56. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
(1) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
(2) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
(3) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.
(4) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor. (NEET-I 2016)
✅ (2) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
Model Questions
57. The spread of cancer cells from one part of the body to another is called
(1) Metagenesis
(2) Metastasis
(3) Diapedesis
(4) Diakinesis
✅ (2) Metastasis
58. Proliferation of cancer cells is not limited because of
(1) Differing surface proteins
(2) Differing cholesterol level
(3) Deficiency of steroids
(4) Aberrant chromosomal complement
✅ (4) Aberrant chromosomal complement
59. Study of cancer is known as
(1) Odontology
(2) Oncology
(3) Odonatology
(4) Osteology
✅ (2) Oncology
60. Which is not the property of cancer cells?
(1) Uncontrolled multiplication
(2) Metastasis
(3) Contact inhibition
(4) Starving normal cells
✅ (3) Contact inhibition
61. Benign tumours
(1) Do not spread to other parts and cause only little damage.
(2) Spread to other parts but cause only little damage.
(3) Spread to other parts and cause big damage.
(4) Do not spread to other parts but cause big damage.
✅ (1) Do not spread to other parts and cause only little damage.
62. For cancer detection, a thin piece of the suspected tissue is stained and examined under microscope. This is called
(1) Autopsy
(2) Necropsy
(3) Endoscopy
(4) Biopsy
✅ (4) Biopsy
63. For destroying cancer tumour, the patients are given biological response modifiers such as α- interferon. This kind of cancer treatment is known as
(1) Radiotherapy
(2) Chemotherapy
(3) Biopsy
(4) Immunotherapy
✅ (4) Immunotherapy
Topic 5: DRUGS, SMOKING AND ALCOHOL ABUSE
NEET: Previous Years Questions
64. Match List I with List II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (NEET 2024)
✅ (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
65. Match List I with List II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (NEET 2023)
✅ (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
66. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
(1) methylation of morphine
(2) acetylation of morphine
(3) glycosylation of morphine
(4) nitration of morphine (NEET 2019)
✅ (2) acetylation of morphine
67. Which part of the poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?
(1) Flowers
(2) Latex
(3) Roots
(4) Leaves (NEET 2018)
✅ (2) Latex
Model Questions
68. Any chemical that causes loss of sensation is
(1) Sedative
(2) Analgesic
(3) Anaesthetic
(4) Stimulant
✅ (3) Anaesthetic
69. Bhang, Ganja, Charas etc. come under
(1) Stimulants
(2) Hallucinogens
(3) Cannabinoids
(4) Both (2) & (3)
✅ (4) Both (2) & (3)
70. Which of the following is not opium derivative?
(1) Mescaline
(2) Morphine
(3) Heroin
(4) Brown sugar
✅ (1) Mescaline
71. Identify the molecule given below:
(1) Cocaine from Erythroxylum coca
(2) Morphine from Papaver somniferum
(3) Cannabinoid from Cannabis sativa
(4) Heroin from Atropa belladonna
✅ (3) Cannabinoid from Cannabis sativa
72. Which is used as sleeping pill?
(1) Heroin
(2) Cocaine
(3) Caffeine
(4) Barbiturates
✅ (4) Barbiturates
73. The drug marijuana is obtained from
(1) Cannabis sativa
(2) Papaver somniferum
(3) Atropa belladonna
(4) Datura alba
✅ (1) Cannabis sativa
74. Which is generally known as pain killers?
(1) Depressants
(2) Opiate narcotics
(3) Stimulants
(4) Hallucinogens
✅ (2) Opiate narcotics
75. Which of the following drug may not be misused by athletes?
(1) Narcotic analgesics
(2) Anabolic steroids
(3) Diuretics
(4) Barbiturates
✅ (4) Barbiturates
76. Select the false statement from the following
(1) Excessive dosage of cocaine causes hallucinations.
(2) Atropa belladona & Datura are also hallucinogenic plants.
(3) Cocaine is commonly called smack.
(4) Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, etc. are used as medicines to treat mental illnesses like depression & insomnia.
✅ (3) Cocaine is commonly called smack.
77. In drunk person, the part of brain to be affected first is
(1) Cerebellum
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebrum
✅ (4) Cerebrum
78. Alcoholism leads to
(1) Gastritis
(2) Cardiomayopathy
(3) Cirrhosis
(4) All of these
✅ (4) All of these
79. Smoking causes
(1) Lip cancer
(2) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(3) Lung cancer
(4) All of these
✅ (4) All of these
80. In heavy smokers, the alveoli of the lungs are enlarged and damaged which reduces the surface area for the exchange of respiratory gases. This condition is called
(1) Asthma
(2) Silicosis
(3) Emphysema
(4) Anosmia
✅ (3) Emphysema
81. Every time, when the dosage of a drug has to be increased to achieve the same ‘kick’ that initially occurred in response to a smaller dose, this condition is known as
(1) Rebound effect
(2) Tolerance
(3) Dependence
(4) Addiction
✅ (2) Tolerance
82. Which one of the following is not a withdrawal symptom due to discontinuation of drugs or alcohol?
(1) Euphoria
(2) Anxiety
(3) Shakiness
(4) Nausea and sweating
✅ (1) Euphoria
83. Use of drugs and alcohol by pregnant woman affect the foetus. This condition is called
(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis
(2) Hydrops fetalis
(3) Foetal alcohol syndrome
(4) Haemolytic diseases
✅ (3) Foetal alcohol syndrome
84. Which of the statement is not true about adolescence?
(1) Adolescence is ‘a period’ and ‘a process’ during which a child becomes mature for effective participation in society.
(2) Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood.
(3) Anabolic steroid abuse in adolescent male & female causes abnormal activation of the growth centres of the long bones resulting in gigantism.
(4) Curiosity, experimentation, adventure and excitement are very high in adolescent people.
✅ (3) Anabolic steroid abuse in adolescent male & female causes abnormal activation of the growth centres of the long bones resulting in gigantism.